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Sprachhelm's avatar

Your argument is essentially: cotton acreage expanded greatly after slavery so therefore slavery was not particularly relevant to cotton profitability before.

That is a classic non sequitur. A thing can be crucial at one stage of development and replaceable later under different conditions. Railroads expanded after canals declined; that doesn’t mean canals were never economically crucial. Horses were replaced by tractors; that doesn’t mean horses were never economically central. What you must show—but do not—is that cotton could have been grown profitably at Southern scale, in Southern conditions, without slavery, during the antebellum period. 1895 acreage proves nothing about that counterfactual.

The argument further confuses aggregate expansion with marginal profitability. Antebellum slavery mattered precisely because land was abundant, labor scarce, capital markets thin, and discipline costly. Later acreage growth occurred under national markets, surplus labor, railroads, and federal enforcement of contracts. One cannot infer nineteenth-century Southern labor economics from late-century national outcomes without committing a category error.

The comparison with grain is analytically empty. Similar rates of acreage expansion say nothing about labor regimes. Cotton and grain differ profoundly in labor intensity, mechanizability, and organizational form. Treating them as comparable because they both expanded is rhetorical, not economic reasoning.

Finally, the argument suppresses a decisive counterfactual: if slavery was not particularly relevant to profitability, then the chronic under-industrialization of the antebellum South becomes inexplicable. The concentration of capital in land and enslaved individuals distorted incentives and locked elites into an extractive agricultural equilibrium. The postwar transition did not refute this logic; it replaced personal domination with increasingly abstract forms of labor control.

darrell's avatar

What I think might be missing in your math is that nations compete for dominance in any given market and age. Example would be AI or energy. During the 19th century the game-on was textiles. The Northerners as we call them here in the South owned and operated all the textile mills and were competing with Britain for world domination. Well as you reported the South had the raw material and put it out for bid. England won the bid and the North threatened export taxes on the South's cotton. Fort Sumter happened and we started killing each other. The Northern family got tired of sending their sons to die in the battle fields for the wealthy business men so the politicians decided to make it an ethical war by Lincoln's Executive Order the Emancipation Proclamation in Sept 0r 1862. The rest is history. Falla tha dalla.

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